Why women only got vote right in 1971 in Switzerland? https://i.redd.it/rbdxbna2rntc1.png Posted by mab-sensei
ChezDudu on April 10, 2024 6:36 pm Because it’s the only country where the majority of men voted to give women the right to vote. Also the French speaking cantons has women suffrage in 1959 already.
dune73 on April 10, 2024 6:37 pm See my /r/askhistorians answer from a couple of years ago: [https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/70ucps/comment/dn6map3/](https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/70ucps/comment/dn6map3/)
paradox3333 on April 10, 2024 6:41 pm These Swiss are the wisest people on Earth. Does that make them wise? Sadly, no.
Premium__Zocker on April 10, 2024 6:49 pm Because in switzerland, 51% of the men had to vote in favor of that change. The other countries’ governments could just decide that change on its own.
jamesnolans on April 10, 2024 6:51 pm Because it’s a majority vote and until then the majority of men didn’t want it to happen.
6 Comments
Because it’s the only country where the majority of men voted to give women the right to vote. Also the French speaking cantons has women suffrage in 1959 already.
See my /r/askhistorians answer from a couple of years ago: [https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/70ucps/comment/dn6map3/](https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/70ucps/comment/dn6map3/)
These Swiss are the wisest people on Earth. Does that make them wise? Sadly, no.
Short answer: conservatism
Because in switzerland, 51% of the men had to vote in favor of that change. The other countries’ governments could just decide that change on its own.
Because it’s a majority vote and until then the majority of men didn’t want it to happen.